| From: | Loki <loki@*******.com> |
|---|---|
| Subject: | Re: Spell Targetting -aura |
| Date: | Fri, 13 Sep 1996 11:38:06 -0700 |
>
> I was rereading the magic rules (once again) and I came across something
> which quite took me by surprise:
>
> Should a target to any spell be behind, say a wall, with onl a foot and head
> exposed, a magician is unable to target them with a spell. The reason being
> (SR2) that the magician requires a view of the entire aura in order to
> synchronise his and thus create a "bridge."
>
> Thus a magician in the above situation would be unable to cast, say power
> bolt, on a partially exposed target. If this holds true, a magician does
> need to target a spell and it isn't only LOS which comes into consideration.
> Must a magician receive penalties for trying to hit a target behind partial
> cover?
>
> As a GM, I am currently undecided on this recent discovery and would like to
> know how others have interpretted, changed or used this rule.
It has been stated before that movement modifiers don't apply, but other
than that I've always applied ranged combat visibilty modifiers (cover,
lighting, and so on) to my spellcasters when they start slinging mojo.
I have come across something intereseting though. S/R II, page 130,
under Spell Targeting is a sentence that says, "A magician cannot,
however, cast spells directly at invisible beings or beings in astral
space by using enhanced vision or astral perception." Later on is
another sentence that says, "A good rule of thumb is that that magicians
must be able to see their target with their own eyes or a natural
extension of those eyes."
Does this mean that a spellcaster cannot shift to the astral plane and
see past someone under an invisibility spell or an unmanifested spirit
lurking around and then hit them with a spell? The reason I ask is that
it's been common practice with my mages to astrally perceive to bypass
lighting modifiers, I don't apply the +2 perceiving modifier with spell
casting.
The way I take what they're saying here is that a projecting mage cannot
throw spells at a spirit or elemental on the astral plane. Neither could
he be perceiving and throw a spell at a bandersnatch or invible
wage-mage that he couldn't see were he using his normal physical sight.
Possibly because spells are an interaction of the astral energies and
physical plane? Is this true and how do you all interpret it?
@>-,--'--- Loki
CLARKE'S THIRD LAW:
Any sufficiently advanced technology is indistinguishable from magic.
Poisoned Elves http://www.netzone.com/~loki/
